I'm curious about something: on Magic Monday, you said you doubted the Magic Resistance's workings could have caused the moral and spiritual collapse that's happening in Canada, because you doubted it could cause such extensive collapses among people who did not participate in it. However, you've linked the ongoing moral and spiritual collapse among the American public (especially on the left), and in particular the weird collapse in basic human decency and thinking around the Covid narrative to the Magic Resistance in prior posts. I doubt most Americans, or even most people on the left for that matter, are involved in the Magic Resistance, so I'm not sure why this would be any different.
Would you mind explaining the difference between these?
no subject
Would you mind explaining the difference between these?